CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ is for both IT and non-technical professionals who
require the essential business acumen needed to make informed cloud service
decisions.
Why is Cloud Essentials+ Different? CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ is the only internationally recognized,
vendor-neutral certification utilizing key business principles and fundamental
cloud concepts that validate data-driven cloud recommendations. It stands alone
in this field by demonstrating that all necessary staff members – not just the
IT specialists – understand how to increase efficiency, manage costs, and reduce
security risks for organizations whenever tasked with making current cloud
technology decisions.
About the exam The new CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ (CL0-002) exam launches November 12, 2019!
Business analysts and IT pros alike are consistently called upon to assist their
organization in determining which cloud service provider(s) to use, what to
migrate to the cloud, and when to implement. Collecting and analyzing cloud
products and services information is essential when making operational cloud
business decisions. The financial and operational impacts covered by Cloud
Essentials+ ensure an ability to develop and implement solid cloud strategies.
CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ will show that successful candidates:
Have the knowledge and understanding of the foundational business and technical
components included in a cloud assessment
Understand specific security concerns and measures
Comprehend new technology concepts, solutions, and benefits to an organization
Exam Description CompTIA Cloud Essentials covers cloud services from a business perspective.
The expertise validated includes the business value of cloud computing, cloud
types, steps to a successful adoption of the cloud, impact and changes on IT
service management, as well as risks and consequences.
CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ validates the candidate has the knowledge and skills
required to make clear and conscious decisions about cloud technologies and
their business impact by evaluating business use cases, financial impacts, cloud
technologies and deployment models with knowledge of cloud computing.
Number of Questions 50 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice
Length of Test 60 Minutes
Passing Score 720 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience At least six months working in an environment that
markets or relies on IT-related services
Between six months to a year of work experience as a business analyst in an IT
environment with some exposure to cloud technologies
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese, Simplified Chinese and Thai
Renewal The CompTIA Cloud Essentials+ certification does not need to be renewed.
For certifications that are part of the CompTIA Continuing Education program and
that can be renewed, please go to our Continuing Education page.
QUESTION 1
A company is moving to the cloud and wants to enhance the provisioning of
compute, storage, security, and networking. Which of the following will be
leveraged?
A. Infrastructure as code
B. Infrastructure templates
C. Infrastructure orchestration
D. Infrastructure automation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which of the following services would restrict connectivity to cloud
resources?
A. Security lists
B. Firewall
C. VPN
D. Intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following cloud characteristics helps transform from a typical
capital expenditure model to an operating expenditure model?
A. Pay-as-you-go
B. Elasticity
C. Self-service
D. Availability
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following DevOps options is used to integrate with cloud
solutions?
A. Provisioning
B. API
C. SOA
D. Automation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A document that outlines the scope of a project, specific deliverables,
scheduling, and additional specific details from the client/buyer is called a:
A. statement of work.
B. standard operating procedure.
C. master service document.
D. service level agreement.
QUESTION 1
A 4-node VxRail Model E560F solution with an embedded vCenter and Log Insight is planned for deployment.
Prior to deployment, DNS records must be created for which hosts?
A. vCenter Server, ESXi hosts, VxRail Manager, and iDRAC
B. vCenter Server, first ESXi host, VxRail Manager, and iDRAC
C. DNS records are automatically created during VxRail deployment
D. vCenter Server, ESXi hosts, VxRail Manager, and Log Insight
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-support-information/products/
converged-infrastructure/h15300-vxrail-network-guide.pdf
QUESTION 2
What is the default network traffic configuration for a VxRail node with 2 x 10 GbE ports?
A. Management and vMotion on Uplink1vSAN and Virtual Machines on Uplink2
B. Management, Virtual Machines, and vSAN on Uplink1
vMotion on Uplink2
C. Management, vMotion, and Virtual Machines on Uplink1
vSAN on Uplink2
D. Management and Virtual Machines on Uplink1
vSAN and vMotion on Uplink2
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What is required to enable vSAN encryption on a VxRail cluster?
A. All-Flash system
External Key Management Server
B. Internal vCenter Server
Internal Key Management Server
C. External vCenter Server
External Key Management Server
D. Internal vCenter Server
External Key Management Server
Answer: C QUESTION 4
A customer is configuring VxRail to connect to an existing, external SRS VE. Their support account is
associated with the Site ID/Party ID where VxRail is installed. A validation error is issued when the customer
attempts to register VxRail in SRS.
What is the possible cause for the error?
A. Status of VxRail in Install Base is ‘Shipped’
B. Wrong IP address was used for SRS VE gateway
C. SRS traffic goes through a proxy server
D. Number of deployed devices on SRS gateway has exceeded the maximum
QUESTION 1
If a user is a member of more than one group that has authorizations on a safe, by default that user is
granted____________________.
A. the vault will not allow this situation to occur.
B. only those permissions that exist on the group added to the safe first.
C. only those permissions that exist in all groups to which the user belongs.
D. the cumulative permissions of all the groups to which that user belongs.
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
It is possible to control the hours of the day during which a user may long into the vault.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://isecurenet.net/wp-content/uploads/2016/06/user-sb-cyberark_privileged_threat_analytics-
030916-final-en-web.pdf
QUESTION 3
VAULT authorizations may be granted to ____________________.
Select all that apply.
A. Vault Users
B. Vault Groups
C. LDAP Users
D. LDAP Groups
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the Interval setting in a CPM policy?
A. To control how often the CPM looks for System Initiated CPM work.
B. To control how often the CPM looks for User Initiated CPM work.
C. To control how long the CPM rests between password changes.
D. To control the maximum amount of time the CPM will wait for a password change to complete.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
All of your Unix root passwords are stored in the safe UnixRoot. Dual control is enabled for some of the
accounts in that safe. The members of the AD group UnixAdmins need to be able to use the show, copy, and
connect buttons on those passwords at any time without confirmation. The members of the AD group
OperationsStaff need to be able to use the show, copy and connect buttons on those passwords on an
emergency basis, but only with the approval of a member of OperationsManagers. The members of
OperationsManagers never need to be able to use the show, copy or connect buttons themselves.
Which safe permissions do you need to grant to OperationsStaff? Check all that apply.
A. Use Accounts
B. Retrieve Accounts
C. List Accounts
D. Authorize Password Requests
E. Access Safe without Authorization
QUESTION 1
You are installing a new SC9000. Which procedure should be used to install and configure the system?
A. Connect through the iDRAC port
B. Connect through a null modem cable to the serial port
C. Connect through the Dell Storage Manager Client
D. Connect through the supplied proprietary serial cable to the serial port
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to configure an SC Series array to use Virtual Port Mode. What is a requirement to
accomplish this task?
A. NPIV must be disabled on Fibre Channel switches
B. I/O Controller cards must use a single-ID firmware version
C. Fibre Channel switches must use a switched fabric topology
D. Activation license must be purchased and installed
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What are the possible methods to upgrade the firmware on a Brocade switch?
A. FTP, SFTP, and Web Tools
B. USB, FTP, and SFTP
C. USB, FTP, and Web Tools
D. USB, SFTP, and Web Tools
QUESTION 1
Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A. atomic
B. root
C. composite
D. file metadata
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A. 26000
B. 27000
C. 28001
D. 28002
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
In an EMC Avamar system, for each file that is backed up, how many SHA-1 hash bytes are added to the file
cache?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 44
D. 48
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is an EMC Avamar object?
A. Variable-sized unit of deduplicated data
B. Unit of disk space for storing data
C. Server running Avamar software
D. One or more servers on a local, high-speed network
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which port on the Avamar server does the client connect to when performing a backup with no encryption?
QUESTION 1
Which hash type represents an individual data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A. Atomic
B. Root
C. Composite
D. Metadata
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2
For each file that is backed up in an EMC Avamar system, how many total bytes are added to the file cache?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 40
D. 44
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation/Reference:
The most important thing to do on a client with so many files is to make sure that the file cache is sized
appropriately. The file cache is responsible for the vast majority (>90%) of the performance of the vamar
client. If there's a file cache miss, the client has to go and thrash your disk for a while chunking up a file that
may already be on the server.
So how to tune the file cache size?
The file cache starts at 22MB in size and doubles in size each time it grows. Each file on a client will use 44
bytes of space in the file cache (two SHA-1 hashes consuming 20 bytes each and 4 bytes of metadata). For 25
million files, the client will generate just over 1GB of cache data.
http://jslabonte.blogspot.com/2013/08/avamar-and-large-dataset-with-multiples.html
QUESTION 3
What are three types of EMC Avamar hashes?
A. Composite, Root, and Atomic
B. Root, Atomic, and Index
C. Composite, Atomic, and Stripe
D. Root, Atomic, and Parity
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is used by EMC Avamar to provide system-wide fault tolerance?
A. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and Replication
B. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and HFS check
C. Asynchronous crunching, Parity, RAIN, and Checkpoints
D. HFS check, RAIN, RAID, and Replication
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
The EMC Avamar client needs to backup a file and has performed sticky-byte factoring. This results in the
following:
Seven (7) chunks that will compress at 30%
Four (4) that will compress at 23%
Two (2) chunks at 50% compression
How many chunks will be compressed prior to hashing?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation/Reference:
vamar, has a rather nifty technology called Sticky Byte Factoring which allows it to identify the changed
information inside a file by breaking the file into variable length objects, this leads to much greater efficiency
than fixed size approaches as changes made early in a fixed length sequence affect all subsequent blocks/
chunks/objects/whatever in that sequence. This in turn changes all the fingerprints taken following the changed
data which means you end up with a lot of new blocks/chunks/objects/whatever even if the data really hasn't
changed all that much. Sticky Byte Factoring on the other hand can tell what exactly has changed, not just that
things have changed. Click here to
view complete Q&A of E20-598 exam
Certkingdom Review,
Certkingdom PDF Torrents Best EMC Storage
Administrator (EMCSA) E20-598 Certification,
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E20-597 NetWorker Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators reflect
NetWorker version 8.0 and NetWorker modules NMM 2.4, NMDA 1.2, PowerSnap and
SnapImage.
Here is a summary of the major differences in content in the supporting
curriculum: Added content for NetWorker 8.0 including Client Direct and synthetic full
backups
Added overview of NetWorker integration with DPA, VMware, Avamar and Data Domain
Removed mention of NetWorker Modules for Microsoft SQL Server and Documentum
Added content for NMM 2.4 support for SQL server backups and recoveries using
VDI as well as VSS
Added content for NetWorker 8.0 including new performance features, changes to
All save set, nsrsnmd and changes in nsrmmd behavior, automatic volume relabel,
new device and storage node fields, synthetic full backups, Client Direct
backups, clone-controlled replication, report home, audit log, new firewall
guidance, multi-tenancy and enhanced security, changes to user group resources,
jobs database
HomeBase and much of the standalone tape topics removed from the course
QUESTION 1
An EMC NetWorker backup job has failed 95% of the way through its operation.
Which functionality is provided by the checkpoint restart feature?
A. The backup can continue from the last known good point
B. The backup can always continue exactly where it left off
C. The backup can be merged with data from the last server checkpoint
D. The backup must be restarted from the beginning
Answer: A
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three components comprise EMC NetWorker’s three tier architecture?
A. Server, Storage Node and Client
B. Master Server, Media Server and Client
C. Server, Storage Agent and Client
D. Cell Manager, Devices and Client
Answer: A
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
The three primary types of EMC NetWorker hosts form an architecture/topology.
What is this called?
A. EMC NetWorker Data Zone
B. EMC NetWorker Storage Domain
C. EMC NetWorker Storage Zone
D. EMC NetWorker Cell
Answer: A
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which feature of EMC NetWorker allows multiplexed, heterogeneous data to reside on the same tape?
A. OTF
B. TAR
C. CPIO
D. ZIP
Answer: A
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which EMC NetWorker feature allows for a failed backup to restart at a known good point prior to the backup
failure?
A. CheckPoint Restart
B. Client Retries
C. Scheduled Backup Attempts
D. Restart Window
Answer: A
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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1Y0-402 Certification exam questions. However, we strongly recommend practicing
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7.15 Assessment Design and Advanced Configurations (1Y0-402) exam. Our experts
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exam; such questions are the most frequently asked in the actual 1Y0-402
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All the questions covered in the sample Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15
Assessment Design and Advanced Configurations simulation exam are basic Citrix
1Y0-402 Certification exam questions. However, we strongly recommend practicing
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and real time scenario based questions in your actual Citrix 1Y0-402
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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. Currently, the
environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites.
Each Site has two Delivery
Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair.
The same applications have been
published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are
configured in each Site with
one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible
from Virtual Delivery Agent
(VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site.
The following access requirements have been identified:
Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites.
Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location.
Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when
accessed from different
Sites.
Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local
NetScaler.
No duplication of applications published from different Sites.
Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A.
The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on
___________across both locations
to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. While designing
Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure
that the UPS design can handle
500 simultaneous print jobs per minute.
What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?
A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company.
The company has identified the
following user groups and requirements.
Product Managers - Typically, they work from inside the company network but are
able to work from home.
They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS
applications.
Field Sales Engineers - They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to
access the environment
externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer
database.
Web Developers - Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a
graphics card to
handle resource-intensive applications.
Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?
A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Exam Title: Oracle Payroll Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1050
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 74
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against 19B. (Previous version
of this exam was validated against 18B in 2018)
Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Exam Preparation
Recommended Training
Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Payroll Concepts Describe cloud Human Resources and the cloud payroll person models
Describe legislative data groups
Describe payroll statutory units
Create payroll users and roles
Earnings and Deduction Definitions Create an earnings or deduction element
Explain the behavior of an element
Create element entry business rules
Configure an absence element
Add eligibility rules for an element
Create rules for retroactive changes
Payroll Costing Rules Describe the levels of a costing hierarchy
Set up a payroll cost allocation flexfield
Configure various types of costing
Perform a transfer to subledger accounting and a posting to GL
Payroll Flows Copy a flow pattern
Edit a flow pattern
Define parameters for tasks within a flow pattern
Submit a payroll flow
Payroll and Balance Definitions Configure a payroll definition
Configure a balance definition
Edit payment dates
Payroll Payment Details Add company payment details
Explain how to configure a payslip report
Add third-party payment details
Employee Level Payroll Information Add a standard earnings entry earning or deduction to an employee
Add bank account details for an employee
Enter payroll frequency details for an employee
Manage absences for an employee
Explain how to initialize payroll balances
Manage costing for a person
Calculate, Validate and Correct Payroll Processes Describe the Payroll Checklist
Verify the results of a payroll run
Correct the payroll run details for an employee
Submit and verify the results of the payment process
Confirm the status of the payroll flow
Verify the results of the costing process
Describe how to reconcile the payroll
Question: 1 You have a requirement for not processing an element entry based on a
specific condition that will
be evaluated during payroll run. How should you achieve this?
A. You write a skip rule with the condition so that the element is not processed
when the condition is satisfied.
B. You write a calculation formula with the condition so that the element is not
processed when the condition is satisfied.
C. You write a validation formula with the condition so that the element is not
processed when the condition is satisfied.
D. You cannot meet this requirement because once an element entry is created, it
will be processed all the time.
Answer: A
Question: 2 Your customer has a business requirement to only allow their employees to
create one personal
payment method. How should you configure this within the product?
A. Remove the “Manage Personal Payment Method” privilege from the employee role,
so that employees cannot create personal payment methods.
B. Create a formula to define the maximum number of payment methods allowed, ant
attach it to the payroll user interface configuration user defined table.
C. Create an information element with an input value to store the maximum number
of payment methods allowed.
D. It is not possible to implement this type of restriction within the
application.
Answer: B
Question: 3 Your customer is using Fusion Absences and wants to send absence information
through to Fusion
Global Payroll so that it can be proceed. Aside from creating your absence
elements and an absence
plan, which two steps do you need to complete? (Choose two.)
A. Create an Absence Calculation Card to store the absence details.
B. Create element eligibility for your absence elements.
C. Manually enter the absence units in the employees element entry.
D. Select the “Transfer absence payment Information for payroll
processing”Checkbox and attach the absence element to the absence plan.
Answer: A,D
Question: 4 Your customer is running their weekly payroll, which includes a number of
high-performing workers,
who will be receiving a bonus. They want these workers to be able to view their
payslip two days earlier than other workers on the weekly payroll.
What action should be taken to meet this requirement?
A. Navigate to the Document of Records (DOR) and override the payslip
availability date for the impacted employees.
B. Create a payroll object group for the impacted workers and enter the
overriding payslip availability date when submitting the payroll run.
C. It is not possible to override the payslip availability date for a subset of
workers.
D. Using the payroll time definition, override the payslip availability date for
the impacted workers.
Answer: B
Question: 5 Your customer’s requirement is to pay employees within each of their three
business units from a different bank account. Which three setup steps should you
complete? (Choose three.)
A. Write a formula to retrieve the employees business unit details.
B. Create a Default Payer Element with a Payment Criteria input value.
C. Create one organization payment method with three payments sources and define
three payment method rules based on each business unit.
D. Create three organization payment methods each with a different payment
source.
Exam Title: Oracle Benefits Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1053
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 105 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 70%
Validated Against: Oracle Benefits Cloud 2019 Certified Implementation
Specialist
Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Configuring Benefits Configure life events
Create benefits groups
Create eligibility profiles
Manage benefit year periods, plan types, and options
Create benefit plans and programs
Configure enrollment display
Reporting on Benefits Explain benefit reports
View enrollment results
Set up benefits extracts, extract and transmit data to plan carriers
Administering Benefits Explain common administrative tasks
Explain collapsing rules
Prepare for an open enrollment period
Manage an open enrollment period
Configure flex credits
Manage benefit coverage and rates
Question: 1
Which is NOT a valid type of life event?
A. Explicit
B. Temporal
C. Scheduled
D. Unrestricted
E. Restricted
Answer: E
Question: 2 XX Life insurance plan has two options: Option 1 enrolls a dependent of age
21 or above and Option
2 enrolls a dependent aged 18 or less.
How do you define a benefit configuration for these two options?
A. Create two derived factors, one with age as 21 or above and a second with age
18 or less. Create an eligibility profile and configure these two derived
factors under the eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility profile to XX
Life Insurance Plan
B. Create one derived factor. Create an eligibility profile and configure the
derived factor under the eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility
profile to XX Life Insurance plan at Option 1, and then attach the same
eligibility profile at Option 2.
C. Create one derived factor. Create an eligibility profile and configure the
derived factor under the eligibility profile. Then attach the eligibility
profile to XX Life Insurance Plan.
D. Create two eligibility profiles. One with age as 21 or above and a second
with age 18 or less. Then attach these eligibility profiles to XX Life Insurance
Plan.
Answer: D
Question: 3
An organization has a scheduled open period for Life Insurance plan from January
1st to the 31st. The important dates defined while configuring the scheduled
open life event are:
1) Enrollment Period Start Date - January 1, 201/
2) Enrollment Period End Date - January 31, 2017
3) Assign Defaults Date - January 31, 2017
4) Assigned Life Event Date - January 15, 2017
5) Coverage Start Date - Latest of elections, event or notified
The batch process to assign the open life event was run effective December 28,
2016. An employee makes an election on January 22, 2017.
What is the coverage start date for this employee?
A. January 15, 2017
B. December 28, 2016
C. January 31, 2017
D. January 22, 2017
Answer: C
Question: 4 What are the number of train stops available in the Benefits Enrollment
self-service page for plan/program enrollment?
A. 5
B. 7
C. The number of train stops can be configured.
D. 6
Answer: C
Question: 5 Which is NOT a derived factor type?
A. Hours Worked
B. Full-Time Equivalent
C. Compensation
D. Grade
Exam Title: Oracle CPQ Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1033
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 70
Passing Score: 70%
Validated Against: Exam has been validated against 19C
Associated Certification Oracle CPQ Cloud Service 2019 Implementation Specialist
Exam Preparation Recommended Training
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Review Exam Topics
Developer Tools
Use the available Developer Tools on CPQ Cloud.
Integration
Use the available tools in the Integration Platform of CPQ Cloud.
Product Tools
Use the available Product tools in CPQ Cloud.
Users
Use the available Users tools in CPQ Cloud.
Commerce and Documents
Use the available Commerce and Documents tools in CPQ Cloud.
General Tools Use the available General tools in CPQ Cloud.
Style and Templates
Use the available Style and Template tools in CPQ Cloud.
Utilities Use the available Utilities tools in CPQ Cloud.
Question: 1 To add items (parts) to a configuration, Recommended Item rules are used.
Which two statements
are true when using Recommended Item rules?
A. Recommended Item rules can return only the base price of an item (part) and
cannot use dynamic prices based off data tables.
B. If multiple Recommended Item rules recommend the same item (part), the item
(part) price is picked from the rule that is last in the order.
C. If multiple Recommended Item rules return the same item (part), the quantity
of the item (part) is a total of all quantities returned by each rule.
D. Recommended Item rules can show only the base prices defined in the customer
specific module.
Answer: B, D
Question: 2 Which Configuration Flow would you choose to design a Configurator where
attributes very based on
prior user selections and have a sequential relationship consisting of distinct
steps?
A. Multi Node Configuration Flow
B. Search Flow
C. Master Start and End Flow
D. any Configuration Flow with a combination of Constraint and Hiding rules that
meets requirements
Answer: A
Question: 3
Which two statements are true about the integration of BigMachines (without
middleware) with external ERP systems?
A. The ERP system should support exchange of XML data.
B. BigMachines can call ERP systems without using BML.
C. Web Services Definition Language (WSDL) can be used to build an XML request
that is sent to ERP systems.
D. You need two BigMachines actions: one to send a request to an ERP system and
another to receive a valid response.
E. Calling an ERP system does not require authentication of any kind.
Answer: A, C
Question: 4 Identify the object of the BigMachines Managed Package app that is used for
initial setup and that allows you to make changes to integration preferences in
Salesforce.
A. BigMachines Quotes
B. BigMachines Site Setup
C. Filed Mapping
D. BigMachines Commerce Process Setup
Exam Title: Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2019 Implementation
Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1046
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 76
Passing Score: 71%
Validated Against:
Validated against version 19B of the product
Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2019 Certified Implementation Specialist Exam Preparation
Recommended Training
Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
People Management Explain the Fusion Person Model
Plan workforce deployment
Analyze workforce deployment
Manage the workforce lifecycle
Maintain worker directories
Create workforce records
Configure Person Gallery Keyword Searches
Workforce Structures Create organizations and divisions
Use effective dating and action types
Explain foundation tables
Set Up Enterprise HCM Information
Create Legal Entities for HCM
Define Workforce Structures
Define Grades
Define Jobs
Define Positions
Define Geographies
Define Enterprise Structures
Workflow, Approvals, and Notifications
Explain Approval Policies
Manage Approval Groups
Deploy Notifications
Manage Approval Transactions
Checklists and Actions
Create Checklists
Set Up Actions and Action Reasons
Define Schedules
Configure Profile Options and Lookups
Define Calendar Events and Geography Trees
Configure Geography Trees
Question: 1 A manager returned from US Subsidiary after a period of 3 months to his
source location of UK Subsidiary.
Which is the option a Human Resource representative should exercise to
re-instate the manager’s records in the source legal employer?
A. Create another assignment with the return date as the effective date.
B. Entering the return will automatically re-instate the record on the return
date.
C. Deploy a Descriptive Flexfiled to capture the return date. Update this
segment with the actual return date to reinstate the record.
D. Initiate the End Global Temporary Assignment action and specify a return
date. The global temporary assignment is terminated and the assignment’s in the
source legal employer are reinstated automatically on the return date.
Answer: D
Question: 2 As an implementation consultant, you are required to set some approvals
under Manage
Employment tasks as Auto Approve.
Which two items need to be specified while defining the BPM Worklist Rule for
auto-approval? (Choose two.)
A. Enter APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
B. Set up dynamic approval rule.
C. Enter AUTO APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
D. Set Auto Action Enabled to True.
E. Select Number of Levels as 0.
Answer: A,D
Question: 3 Which three options define Enterprise Structures Configurator (ESC)? (Choose
three.)
A. It is an interview-based tool that guides through the process of setting up a
basic enterprise structure.
B. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units and
reference data sets.
C. The tool creates a structure of divisions that may then be manipulated by the
administrator.
D. After defining the enterprise structure and the job / position structures,
the administrator can review them, make any necessary changes and then load /
rollback the final configuration.
E. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units and
departments.
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 4 A static approval group named “Trio” comprises three members – Jacob, Susan,
and Dia (in the
mentioned order). For all the Manage Employment transactions, the approval
should be routed to
the “Trio” approval group. When the assignment change transaction is submitted,
what is the order
in which these members receive the assignment change approval notification?
A. System decides the approval route by randomly selecting approvers who are a
part of the approval group.
B. First Approver – Dia, Second Approver – Susan, Third Approval – Jacob
C. All three get the notification at the same time.
D. First Approver – Jacob, Second Approver – Susan, Third Approver – Dia
E. The approval is routed alphabetically.
Answer: D
Question: 5 Identify three correct statements about Workforce Life Cycle. (Choose
three.)
A. HR specialists can create and manage work relationships, employment terms,
and assignments for the workers to whim they have security access.
B. The Add Person tasks include creating a new person’s first work relationship
with the enterprise.
C. Line Managers can transfer their direct and indirect reports only.
D. HR specialists and line managers can create and manage work relationships,
employment terms, and assignments for all the workers.
E. Line managers can create and manage work relationships, employment terms, and
assignments for all workers.
Description When you’re ready to prepare for your A+ certification exams, count on more
than 20 years of CompTIA’s experience in creating and improving learning
materials.
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide (220-1001) has been developed by
CompTIA for the CompTIA certification candidate. Rigorously evaluated by
third-party subject matter experts to validate adequate coverage of the Core 1
exam objectives, the Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide teaches the
essential skills and information required for the CompTIA certification exam
(220-1001).
After reading the A+ 220-1001 study guide you will understand how to: Install and configure PC system unit components and peripheral devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot display and multimedia devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot storage devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot internal system components.
Explain network infrastructure concepts.
Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
Implement client virtualization.
Support and troubleshoot laptops.
Support and troubleshoot mobile devices.
Support and troubleshoot print devices.
The Official CompTIA® A+® Core 2 Study Guide (Exam 220-1002) provides the
background knowledge and skills you will require to be a successful A+
technician. It will help you prepare to take the CompTIA A+ Core Series
certification examination (Exam 220-1002), in order to become a CompTIA A+
Certified Professional.
After reading the CompTIA A+ 220-1002 Certification Study Guide, you will be
able to: Support operating systems.
Install, configure, and maintain operating systems.
Maintain and troubleshoot Microsoft Windows.
Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
Manage users, workstations, and shared resources.
Implement physical security.
Secure workstations and data.
Troubleshoot workstation security issues.
Support and troubleshoot mobile operating systems and applications.
Implement operational procedures.
To get the most out of the CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guides and prepare for
your exam, you should have experience with basic computer user skills, be able
to complete tasks in a Microsoft® Windows® environment, be able to search for,
browse, and access information on the Internet, and have basic knowledge of
computing concepts. You can obtain this level of skills and knowledge by taking
the following official CompTIA courses:
What’s Included These fully illustrated books cover all the latest A+ Core 1 (220-1001) and
Core 2 (220-1002) exam objectives and are packed with informative and accessible
content. Each book includes the following:
Content aligned to work in the real world - Lessons refer to functional areas
within the job role while Topics relate to discrete job tasks
Comprehensive glossary with important terms and acronyms
Course Overview A+ Core 1 (220-1001)
Installing and Configuring PC Components
Use Appropriate Safety Procedures
PC Components
Common Connection Interfaces
Install Peripheral Devices
Troubleshooting Methodology
Installing, Configuring, and Troubleshooting Display and Multimedia Devices
Install and Configure Display Devices
Troubleshoot Display Devices
Install and Configure Multimedia Devices
Installing, Configuring, and Troubleshooting Storage Devices
Install System Memory
Install and Configure Mass Storage Devices
Install and Configure Removable Storage Devices
Configure RAID
Troubleshoot Storage Devices
Installing, Configuring, and Troubleshooting Internal System Components
Install and Upgrade CPUs
Configure and Upgrade BIOS/UEFI
Install Power Supplies
Troubleshoot Internal System Components
Configure a Custom PC
Network Infrastructure Concepts
Wired Networks
Networking Hardware Devices
Wireless Networks
Internet Connection Types
Network Configuration Concepts
Network Ports and Services
Managing Users, Workstations, and Shared Resources
Manage Users
Configure Shared Resources
Configure Active Directory
Security Concepts
Logical Security Concepts
Threats and Vulnerabilities
Physical Security Measures
Securing Workstations and Data
Implement Security Best Practices
Implement Data Protection Policies
Data Protection During Incident Response
Troubleshooting Workstation Security Issues
Detect, Remove, and Prevent Malware
Troubleshoot Common Workstation Security Issues
Supporting and Troubleshooting Mobile Devices
Secure Mobile Devices
Troubleshoot Mobile Device Issues
Implementing Operational Procedures
Use Appropriate Safety Procedures
Environmental Impacts and Controls
Create and Maintain Documentation
Use Basic Change Management Best Practices
Implement Disaster Prevention and Recovery Methods
Use Basic Scripting
Professionalism and Communication
Question: 1
A technician arrives on site to find that two users who have the same model on
Android smartphone
are having the same issue with a specific application.
Whenever they attempt to launch the application, it fails and gives an error
message. Which of the
following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Reinstall the application
B. Roll back the application to the earlier version
C. Clear the application cache
D. Update the OS of the smartphones
Answer: D
Question: 2 A technician is working on a Windows 10 PC that is running slowly.
Which of the following commands should the technician use to correct this issue?
(Select two.)
A. dir
B. chdsk
C. dism
D. ipconfig
E. format
F. diskpart
Answer: B, C
Question: 3 An administrator is setting up a Windows terminal server. Which of the
following settings should the
administrator modify to increase server security? (Select two.)
A. Change the default access port
B. Enforce password complexity
C. Put the terminal server into the router’s DMZ
D. Disable logon time restrictions
E. Block all unused ports on the LAN smart switch
F. Use the local client certificate for server authentication
Answer: C, E
Question: 4
A company has hired a new IT firm to manage its network switches and routers.
The firm is geographically separated from the company and will need to able to
securely access the devices.
Which of the following will provide the ability to access these devices?
Languages: English
Audiences: IT Professionals
Technology: Microsoft Azure
Skills measured This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed
below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on
the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on
that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of
question types on Microsoft exams.
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam?
Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and
incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability
of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to
your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft
Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an
exam challenge.
If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or
about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact
your Regional Service Center.
Develop Azure Infrastructure as a Service Compute Solutions (10-15%) Implement solutions that use virtual machines (VM)
Provision VMs
Create ARM templates
Configure Azure Disk Encryption for VMs
Implement batch jobs by using Azure Batch Services
Manage batch jobs by using Batch Service API
Run a batch job by using Azure CLI, Azure portal, and other tools
Write code to run an Azure Batch Services batch job
Create containerized solutions
Create an Azure Managed Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster
Create container images for solutions
Publish an image to the Azure Container Registry
Run containers by using Azure Container Instance or AKS
Develop Azure Platform as a Service Compute Solutions (20-25%)
Create Azure App Service Web Apps
Create an Azure App Service Web App
Create an Azure App Service background task by using WebJobs
Enable diagnostics logging
Create Azure App Service mobile apps
Add push notifications for mobile apps
Enable offline sync for mobile app
Implement a remote instrumentation strategy for mobile devices
Create Azure App Service API apps
Create an Azure App Service API app
Create documentation for the API by using open source and other tools
Implement Azure functions
Implement input and output bindings for a function
Implement function triggers by using data operations, timers, and webhooks
Implement Azure Durable Functions
Create Azure Function apps by using Visual Studio
Develop for Azure storage (15-20%) Develop solutions that use storage tables
Design and implement policies for tables
Query table storage by using code
Implement partitioning schemes
Develop solutions that use Cosmos DB storage
Create, read, update, and delete data by using appropriate APIs
Implement partitioning schemes
Set the appropriate consistency level for operations
Develop solutions that use a relational database
Provision and configure relational databases
Configure elastic pools for Azure SQL Database
Create, read, update, and delete data tables by using code
Develop solutions that use blob storage
Move items in blob storage between storage accounts or containers
Set and retrieve properties and metadata
Implement blob leasing
Implement data archiving and retention
Implement Azure security (10-15%)
Implement authentication
Implement authentication by using certificates, forms-based authentication, or
tokens
Implement multi-factor or Windows authentication by using Azure AD
Implement OAuth2 authentication
Implement Managed Service Identity (MSI)/Service Principal authentication
Implement access control
Implement CBAC (Claims-Based Access Control) authorization
Implement RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) authorization
Create shared access signatures
Implement secure data solutions
Encrypt and decrypt data at rest and in transit
Create, read, update, and delete keys, secrets, and certificates by using the
KeyVault API
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize Azure solutions (15-20%)
Develop code to support scalability of apps and services
Implement autoscaling rules and patterns
Implement code that handles transient faults
Integrate caching and content delivery within solutions
Store and retrieve data in Azure Redis cache
Develop code to implement CDNs in solutions
Invalidate cache content (CDN or Redis)
Instrument solutions to support monitoring and logging
Configure instrumentation in an app or service by using Application Insights
Analyze and troubleshoot solutions by using Azure Monitor
Implement Application Insights Web Test and Alerts
Connect to and Consume Azure Services and Third-party Services (20-25%)
Develop an App Service Logic App
Create a Logic App
Create a custom connector for Logic Apps
Create a custom template for Logic Apps
Integrate Azure Search within solutions
Create an Azure Search index
Import searchable data
Query the Azure Search index
Establish API Gateways
Create an APIM instance
Configure authentication for APIs
Define policies for APIs
Develop event-based solutions
Implement solutions that use Azure Event Grid
Implement solutions that use Azure Notification Hubs
Implement solutions that use Azure Event Hub
Develop message-based solutions
Implement solutions that use Azure Service Bus
Implement solutions that use Azure Queue Storage queues
Question: 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the
stated
goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others
might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a
result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Margie's Travel is an international travel and bookings management service. The
company is expanding into restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing
Azure Search tor the restaurants listed in their solution.
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using
the
Azure Search NET SDK.
Solution:
1. Create a SearchServiceClient object to connect to the search index.
2. Create a DataContainer that contains the documents which must be added.
3. Create a DataSource instance and set its Container property to the
DataContainer.
4. Set the DataSource property of the SearchServiceCIient Does the solution meet
the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question: 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the
stated
goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others
might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a
result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Margie’s Travel is an international travel and bookings management service. The
company is expanding into restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing
Azure Search for the restaurants listed in their solution
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using
the
Azure Search NET SDK.
Solution:
1 Create a SearchlndexClient object to connect to the search index
2. Create an IndexBatch that contains the documents which must be added.
3. Call the DocumentsIndex method of the SearchlndexClient and pass the
IndexBatch.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question: 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario.
Each question in the scries contains a unique solution that might meet the
stated
goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others
might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a
result these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Margie’s Travel is an international travel and bookings management service. The
company is expanding into restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing
Azure Search for the restaurants listed in their solution.
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using
the
Azure Search .NET SDK.
Solution:
1. Create a SearchlndexClient object to connect to the search index.
2. Create a DataContainer that contains the documents which must be added.
3. Create a DataSource instance and set its Container property to the
DataContamer
4 Call the Documents.Suggest method of the SearchlndexClient and pass the
DataSource.
Description When you’re ready to prepare for your A+ certification exams, count on more
than 20 years of CompTIA’s experience in creating and improving learning
materials.
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide (220-1001) has been developed by
CompTIA for the CompTIA certification candidate. Rigorously evaluated by
third-party subject matter experts to validate adequate coverage of the Core 1
exam objectives, the Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide teaches the
essential skills and information required for the CompTIA certification exam
(220-1001).
After reading the A+ 220-1001 study guide you will understand how to: Install and configure PC system unit components and peripheral devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot display and multimedia devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot storage devices.
Install, configure, and troubleshoot internal system components.
Explain network infrastructure concepts.
Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
Implement client virtualization.
Support and troubleshoot laptops.
Support and troubleshoot mobile devices.
Support and troubleshoot print devices.
The Official CompTIA® A+® Core 2 Study Guide (Exam 220-1002) provides the
background knowledge and skills you will require to be a successful A+
technician. It will help you prepare to take the CompTIA A+ Core Series
certification examination (Exam 220-1002), in order to become a CompTIA A+
Certified Professional.
After reading the CompTIA A+ 220-1002 Certification Study Guide, you will be
able to: Support operating systems.
Install, configure, and maintain operating systems.
Maintain and troubleshoot Microsoft Windows.
Configure and troubleshoot network connections.
Manage users, workstations, and shared resources.
Implement physical security.
Secure workstations and data.
Troubleshoot workstation security issues.
Support and troubleshoot mobile operating systems and applications.
Implement operational procedures.
To get the most out of the CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guides and prepare for
your exam, you should have experience with basic computer user skills, be able
to complete tasks in a Microsoft® Windows® environment, be able to search for,
browse, and access information on the Internet, and have basic knowledge of
computing concepts. You can obtain this level of skills and knowledge by taking
the following official CompTIA courses:
Question: 1 A technician is troubleshooting what appears to be a RAM issue on a PC.
Which of the following symptoms would indicate if this is a RAM issue?
A. POST code beeps
B. Distended capacitors
C. Continuous reboots
D. Wrong BIOS time
Answer: C
Question: 2 A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to
be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost.
Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the
device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the case and organize the parts.
B. Document the screw locations.
C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials.
D. Consult colleagues for advice.
E. Place the device in rice for a few days.
Answer: A, B
Question: 3 Which of the following peripherals would a company use to take inventory
quickly and update price tags for products? (Choose two.)
A. Barcode scanner
B. Label printer
C. Magnetic reader
D. KVM switch
E. NFC device
F. Flatted scanner
