EXAM C_S4CPB_2502
60 questions (2 hrs)
67% cut score
Available in EN
To qualify for this certification, you are required to demonstrate your
practical, hands-on skills. Before accessing the certification exam, you should
complete the practical test of the learning journey for Implementing SAP S/4HANA
Cloud Public Edition. This submission will undergo validation and confirmation
in the system. Please ensure you complete the practical test as a prerequisite
to proceeding with the certification. Passing the exam alone won't be sufficient
to get certified. Please note that your certification can be revoked in case you
did not complete the hands-on testing.
Validate your SAP skills and expertise This certification verifies that you possess the core skills required to
explain and execute core implementation project tasks to deploy, adopt, and
extend SAP S/4HANA Cloud Public Edition. This certification is designed for
implementation project members to prove their overall understanding and in-depth
skills to participate in their role as members of a SAP S/4HANA Cloud Public
Edition implementation project.
Stay certified and stay ahead Continuous learning and keeping your skills up to date is a priority and SAP
Certification makes it easy for you to maintain your SAP skills and valid
credentials.
The standard validity of your certification is 12 months. Every time you successfully complete an assessment, the validity period is
extended by 12 more months.
You’ll receive personalized communication to ensure that you don’t miss your
certification expiry date.
Topic areas Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this SAP
Certification and the courses that touches on these topics. Its accuracy does
not constitute a legitimate claim. SAP reserves the right to update the exam
content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.
Implementing with a Cloud Mindset, Building the Team, and Conducting
Fit-to-Standard Workshops
Exam percentage: 11-20%
Configuration and the SAP Fiori Launchpad
Exam percentage: 11-20%
Data Migration and Business Process Testing
Exam percentage: 11-20%
Extensibility and Integration
Exam percentage: 11-20%
Introduction to Cloud Computing and SAP Cloud ERP Basics
Exam percentage: 11-20%
System Landscapes and Identity Access Management
Exam percentage: 11-20%
QUESTION 1 You work on a Sell from Stock (BD9) process in SAP SHANA Cloud Public
Edition. What must be created to confirm a customer's intention to buy the
products?
A. Sales quotation
B. Outbound delivery
C. Sales inquiry
D. Sales order
Answer: D
QUESTION 2 You need to manage a customer down payment. Which action do you perform
during sales order entry?
A. Enter an appropriate item in the billing plan of the sales order.
B. Create a sales order with a dedicated order type.
C. Enter a specific condition in the pricing procedure of the sales order.
D. Mark the down payment checkbox at item level.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You are working on a Sales Order Processing with Collective Billing (BKZ)
process in SAP SHANA Cloud Public Edition.
Which of the following split criteria always prevent the combination of multiple
sales orders into a single outbound delivery? Note: There are 2 correct answers
to this question.
A. Plant
B. Shipping point
C. Payment term
D. Ship-to party
Answer: B D
QUESTION 4 Which of the following documents can be used as a reference to create debit
memo requests? Note:
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Billing document
B. Delivery document
C. Quantity contract
D. Sales order
Answer: A D
QUESTION 5 Which information must you enter manually in the invoice correction process?
A. Billing block
B. Order reason
C. Return reason
D. Billing plan
The Apple Device Support Exam tests your ability to support Apple devices in
an organization, covering topics like Mobile Device Management, Apple Account
and iCloud, and system diagnostics. It consists of approximately 80 scored
technical questions, using multiple-choice, multiple-select, and matching
formats. You have 120 minutes to complete the exam, and a minimum passing score
of 75% (sometimes 78%) is required. You cannot use any external resources during
the exam.
Key Details: Exam Name: Apple Device Support Exam (9L0-3023-ENU).
Question Format: Multiple-choice, multiple-select, and potentially matching
questions.
Number of Questions: Approximately 80.
Time Limit: 120 minutes.
Passing Score: 75% or 78% (depending on the specific exam version).
No Resources Allowed: You cannot use any external resources or references during
the exam.
Exam Delivery: Online through the Pearson On proctoring platform.
Certification: Passing the exam earns you the Apple Certified Support
Professional digital badge.
Preparing for the Apple Device Support Exam The Apple Device Support Exam is for technical professionals who support
Apple devices in their organization. The exam is based on iOS 18, iPadOS 18, and
macOS Sequoia. It covers all the learning objectives listed in Reviewing the
Learning Objectives, not only the topics in this course. To pass the exam, you
must study multiple Apple resources and gain direct experience with supporting
Apple devices. When you pass the exam, you earn the Apple Certified Support
Professional digital badge
To prepare for the Apple Device Support Exam, follow this approach: Become familiar with the setup and use of iPhone, iPad, Mac, Apple Account,
and iCloud.
Gain practical experience in supporting Apple devices in an organization.
Complete this course. Study its content and linked resources, and perform the
exercises.
The Check Your Understanding questions in each article or tutorial help
reinforce your knowledge.
Read Reviewing the Learning Objectives to become familiar with the learning
objectives.
Carefully study the linked resources for each objective.
Take the Apple Device Support Practice Exam.
The practice exam helps you understand whether you’re ready to take the Apple
Device Support Exam or which knowledge areas require further study.
Important In addition to the time to complete this course, you may need 30–60 hours to
prepare for the Apple Device Support Exam, depending on your background,
technical expertise, and experience supporting Apple devices.
Taking the Practice Exam You complete the practice exam online through
The practice exam name is Apple Device Support Practice Exam (SUP-2025-PRA).
Plan to complete the practice exam in one sitting. You have 120 minutes to
complete it.
The practice exam contains approximately 80 scored technical questions.
The minimum passing score is 75 percent. Scores aren’t rounded.
The practice exam includes multiple-choice single-select and multiple-choice
multiple-select questions.
Answer each question without referring to the course or other resources. Doing
so helps you identify whether you’re ready to take the Apple Device Support
Exam.
Signing Up for the Practice Exam
To sign up for the Apple Device Support Practice Exam, complete these steps:
Sign in to ACRS (Apple Certification Records System) using your Apple Account credentials.
Click Available Exams, then locate and click the link in the following message:
“A practice exam is now available for Apple Device Support. Click here to
apply.”
Update the required sections on the exam application page, then click the Submit
button.
On the Notifications page, locate and click the link in the following message:
“You may continue to the exam process for Apple Device Support Practice Exam.
Continue
If you want to start the practice exam later, complete these steps:
Sign in to ACRS then click the Apple Device Support Practice Exam on the Notifications page.
If you don’t pass the practice exam on the first try, you can buy another
practice exam and retake it after 7 days. You have unlimited attempts to pass
the Apple Device Support Practice Exam.
Sample Question and Answers
QUESTION 1 A user migrated to their new iPhone using a Mac backup of their old iPhone.
The user reports their Health and Activity data is missing. Why is the Health
and Activity data missing?
A. The user deselected Health and Activity data when they backed up their iPhone.
B. Health and Activity data isnt backed up when backing up to a computer.
C. The user restored from an unencrypted backup.
D. The user deselected Health and Activity data when they restored their backup.
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which feature isnt available with a Managed Apple Account?
A. iCloud Keychain
B. iCloud Drive
C. News
D. Health
Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A user reports that the keyboard on their Mac needs replacement.
They say about 10 keys on the right side of the keyboard are producing incorrect
characters when pressed.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. Game Mode is active.
B. Mouse Keys is active.
C. The keyboard needs replacement.
D. Sticky Keys is active.
Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Where can you view the amount of memory that apps are using?
A. Console
B. Apple Diagnostics
C. System Information
D. Activity Monitor
Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which accessibility feature enlarges text on the screen when you move the
pointer over it?
A. VoiceOver
B. Zoom
C. Pointer Control
D. Hover Text
1Z0-1046-24 Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2024 Implementation
Professional Exam Number
Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2024 Certified Implementation Professional
Format: Hands-on Performance Based
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price:
Number of Questions: Not Applicable
Passing Score: Challenges - 75% | Multiple choice - 68%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 23A/23B/23C/23D/24A/24B.
Policy:Cloud Recertification
Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1046-24 The Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2024 Implementation Professional
certification is designed for HCM Implementation Specialists, Project Team
Members, Power Users, and HCM Administrators who administer the workforce and
implement Oracle HCM Cloud Service solutions. Individuals who earn this
certification have a strong foundation and expertise in People Management,
Enterprise Structures, Workforce Structures, Checklists, Journeys, Actions,
Workflow,
Approvals, Alert Composer, and Notifications.
The Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2024 Certified Implementation
Professional certification is a Hands-on Performance based exam comprising of
hands-on challenges and multiple choice questions. You will need to pass both
sections individually to earn the credential.
You must have a valid Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud Implementation
Professional Certification exam credential in order to take this Delta exam. If
your credential has expired you can get up to date by successfully completing
the qualifying Delta exam for free. If you are not eligible to take the Delta
exam, you will need to take the Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2024
Implementation Professional Certification exam.
Check the Oracle Recertification Policy to see if you qualify.
Take recommended training Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Become a Certified Global Human Resources (Core HR) Implementer
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best
preparation for passing the exam.
Review exam topics
Administering People Management Explain Person and Employment Model
Manage the workforce lifecycle
Maintain worker directories for employee and manager self service
Maintain workforce information for person and employment data
Configure Directory Person Keyword Searches
Configure HCM Cloud using HCM Experience Design Studio
Defining Workforce Structures Create Organizations and Divisions to support Workforce Structures
Define Geographies for inputting address
Define Enterprise Structure for the environment instance
Identify changes using effective dating and actions
Configure application behaviour using Enterprise HCM Information
Create Legal Entities for HCM
Organize workforce using Workforce Structures
Configure Grades for employee compensation
Configure Jobs for employee roles
Configure Positions for organization hierarchy
Configuring Checklists, Schedules, Trees, and Journeys
Create Checklists for use in Journeys
Define Schedules for work expectations
Configure Profile Options and Lookups
Define Calendar Events and Geography Trees
Configure Trees for reporting, approvals, and calendar events
Configure Journeys for employment and personal events
Managing Workflows, Approvals, and Notifications
Explain Approval Policies
Manage Approval Rules and Approver Types
Deploy Notifications for approvals and communication
Write policies using Approval Transactions
Use Alerts Composer to send notifications
QUESTION 1 When working on the Manage Geographies page, in what order do you need to
access the areas that are available if you are manually configuring your
geographies?
A. Validation Defined, Hierarchy Defined, Structure Defined
B. Hierarchy Defined, Structure Defined, Validation Defined
C. Validation Defined, Address Cleansing Defined, Hierarchy Defined, Structure
Defined
D. Structure Defined, Hierarchy Defined, Validation Defined
Answer: D
Explanation:
Full Detailed in Depth Explanation.
When manually configuring geographies in Oracle HCM Cloud using the Manage
Geographies page,
the correct sequence is critical to ensure the geography framework is set up
properly. The process
begins with defining theStructureof the geography (e.g., country, state, city
levels), followed by
defining theHierarchy(how these levels relate to one another), and finally
setting upValidation(rules
to ensure data integrity and usability). This sequence ensures that the
foundational structure is in
place before relationships are established and validated. According to the
Oracle HCM Cloud
documentation, specifically the "Implementing Global Human Resources" guide, the
recommended order is:
Structure Defined: Define the levels of geography (e.g., country, province,
city).
Hierarchy Defined: Establish parent-child relationships between geography
levels.
Reference:Oracle HCM Cloud: Implementing Global Human Resources, Chapter on
"Geographies Setup".
QUESTION 2 Which three HCM Cloud capabilities are considered part of the Global Human
Resources Business Process?
A. Workforce Directory
B. Time and Labor
C. Workforce Compensation
D. Workforce Modeling
E. Core Human Resources
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Full Detailed in Depth Explanation.
https://certkingdom.com
The Global Human Resources (HR) Business Process in Oracle HCM Cloud encompasses
core
capabilities that manage workforce data, structures, and planning at a global
level. According to Oracle documentation:
Workforce Directory (A): Provides a centralized view of the workforce, including
organizational
hierarchies and worker details, which is integral to Global HR.
Workforce Modeling (D): Enables scenario planning and organizational modeling, a
key feature of
Global HR for strategic workforce management.
Core Human Resources (E): Covers essential HR functions like person
management,employment
records, and organizational structures, forming the backbone of Global HR.
Reference:Oracle HCM Cloud: Global Human Resources Implementation Guide,
"Business Process Overview".
QUESTION 3 When working through configurations in the Functional Area, Workforce
Deployment within FSM, are you required to access and configure the objects in
the order listed on the page?
A. No
B. Yes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Full Detailed in Depth Explanation.
In the Functional Setup Manager (FSM) under the Workforce Deployment functional
area, Oracle
HCM Cloud provides flexibility in configuration. The objects (e.g., Departments,
Locations, Positions)
listed on the page are not strictly required to be configured in the order they
appear. While Oracle
recommends a logical sequence (e.g., defining Departments before Positions), the
system does not
enforce this as a mandatory requirement. Implementers can adjust the order based
on their
implementation needs, as long as dependencies (e.g., a Position requiring a
Department) are
satisfied. The "Implementing Workforce Deployment" section of the Oracle
documentation confirms
this flexibility, stating that configuration order can vary depending on
organizational requirements.
Thus, the correct answer isA.
Reference:Oracle HCM Cloud: Implementing Global Human Resources, "Workforce
Deployment Setup".
QUESTION 4
Geography framework in HCM Cloud is used for the following purpose:
A. To display the geographies of a given country accessible through a lookup
value versus entering each geography in a free form field
B. To determine the address fields that display on a page when entering an
address
C. To define all work locations for your organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Full Detailed in Depth Explanation.
The Geography framework in Oracle HCM Cloud is designed to standardize and
streamline the
management of geographical data. Its primary purpose is to provide a structured,
validated list of
geographies (e.g., countries, states, cities) accessible via lookup values,
rather than allowing freeform
text entry, which reduces errors and ensures consistency. Option B (determining
address fields)
relates to address styles, not the geography framework itself. Option C
(defining work locations) is a
downstream use of geographies but not the frameworks primary purpose. According
to the Oracle
HCM Cloud "Geographies Setup" documentation, the frameworks key role is to
enable lookup-based
geography selection, makingAthe correct answer.
Reference:Oracle HCM Cloud: Implementing Global Human Resources, "Geography
Framework Overview".
QUESTION 5
In order to configure the product you plan on implementing, what is the first
action you need tocomplete within the Setup and Maintenance Work Area (FSM)?
A. Create additional Implementer User Profiles
B. Configure your legal entities
C. Opt in to the Offering and Product areas you will be implementing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Full Detailed in Depth Explanation.
In Oracle HCM Cloud, the Setup and Maintenance Work Area (FSM) is the starting
point for
implementation. The first required action is toopt into the offerings (e.g.,
Global Human Resources)
and specific product areas you plan to implement. This step activates the
relevant tasks and
configuration options in FSM, making subsequent setups (like legal entities or
user profiles) possible.
Without opting in, the system restricts access to implementation tasks. The
Oracle documentation
emphasizes that "opting in" is the initial step in the implementation process,
as outlined in the
"Getting Started with Your Implementation" guide, makingCthe correct answer.
Reference:Oracle HCM Cloud: Getting Started with Your Implementation, "Initial
Setup Steps".
This certification validates experienced security operations engineers on their
knowledge and skills in installation, deployment configuration, post-deployment
management and configuration, data source onboarding and integration
configuration, playbook creation, and detection engineering using Cortex XDR in
security operations environments.
This certification is designed for security operations engineers, security
engineers, XDR and SOC engineers, detection engineers, security architects,
security operations support engineers, and individuals responsible for
deployment, configuration, data onboarding, playbook creation, and
troubleshooting in security operations environments.
Sample Question and Answers
QUESTION 1 [Data Ingestion and Integration]
An administrator wants to employ reusable rules within custom parsing rules to
apply consistent log
field extraction across multiple data sources. Which section of the parsing rule
should the
administrator use to define those reusable rules in Cortex XDR?
A. RULE
B. INGEST
C. FILTER
D. CONST
Answer: D
QUESTION 2 [Data Ingestion and Integration]
What will be the output of the function below?
L_TRIM("a* aapple", "a")
A. ' aapple'
B. " aapple"
C. "pple"
D. " aapple-"
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 [Data Ingestion and Integration]
How can a customer ingest additional events from a Windows DHCP server into
Cortex XDR with minimal configuration?
A. Activate Windows Event Collector (WEC)
B. Install the XDR Collector
C. Enable HTTP collector integration
D. Install the Cortex XDR agent
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 [Cortex XDR Agent Configuration]
How are dynamic endpoint groups created and managed in Cortex XDR?
A. Endpoint groups require intervention to update the group with new endpoints
when a new device is added to the network
B. Each endpoint can belong to multiple groups simultaneously, allowing
different security policies to be applied to the same device at the same time
C. After an endpoint group is created, its assigned security policy cannot be
changed without deleting and recreating the group
D. Endpoint groups are defined based on fields such as OS type, OS version, and
network segment
Answer: D
QUESTION 5 [Dashboards and Reporting]
An engineer is building a dashboard to visualize the number of alerts from
various sources.
One of the widgets from the dashboard is shown in the image below:
The engineer wants to configure a drilldown on this widget to allow dashboard
users to select any of
the alert names and view those alerts with additional relevant details. The
engineer has configured
the following XQL query to meet the requirement:
dataset = alerts
| fields alert_name, description, alert_source, severity, original_tags,
alert_id, incident_id
| filter alert_name =
| sort desc _time
How will the engineer complete the third line of the query (filter alert_name =)
to allow dynamic filtering on a selected alert name?
A. $y_axis.value
B. $x_axis.value
C. $x_axis.name
D. $y_axis.name
TEST DETAILS Required exam DY0-001
Number of questions Maximum of 90
Types of questions Multiple-choice and performance-based
Length of test 165 minutes
Recommended experience A minimum of 5 years of hands-on experience as a data
scientist
Passing score Pass/fail only; no scaled score
EXAM OBJECTIVES (DOMAINS) The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the
extent to which they are represented.
DOMAIN PERCENTAGE OF EXAMINATION 1.0 Mathematics and Statistics 17%
2.0 Modeling, Analysis, and Outcomes 24%
3.0 Machine Learning 24%
4.0 Operations and Processes 22%
5.0 Specialized Applications of Data Science 13%
Total 100%
About the Exam The CompTIA DataX certification exam will certify the successful candidate
has the knowledge and skills required to:
• Understand and implement data science operations and processes.
• Apply mathematical and statistical methods appropriately and understand the
importance of data processing and cleaning, statistical modeling, linear
algebra, and calculus concepts.
• Apply machine-learning models and understand deep-learning concepts.
• Utilize appropriate analysis and modeling methods and make justified model
recommendations.
• Demonstrate understanding of industry trends and specialized data science
applications.
EXAM DEVELOPMENT CompTIA exams result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide
survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an IT
professional.
CompTIA DataX DY0-001 Hardware and Software List
CompTIA has included this sample list of hardware and software to assist
candidates as they prepare for the DataX DY0-001 certification exam. This list
may also be helpful for training companies that wish to create a lab
component for their training offering. The bulleted lists below each topic are
sample lists and are not exhaustive.
Equipment • Workstations with CUDA-compatible GPU
• GPU on cloud providers
Software • Linux kernel-based operating systems (preferred)
• Windows operating systems
- Regional packs
- Unicode
- Windows Subsystem for Linux (WSL)
- Docker desktop
• CoderPad
• Python or R
- Relevant packages (visualization, modeling, cleaning, and machine learning)
• Notebook environment/tool set
• Visual Studio Code
• Git
Other
• Large data sets
• Small data sets
• Various types of data sets
QUESTION 1 A data scientist is building an inferential model with a single predictor
variable.
A scatter plot of the independent variable against the real-number dependent
variable shows a strong relationship
between them. The predictor variable is normally distributed with very few
outliers.
Which of the following algorithms is the best fit for this model, given the data
scientist wants the model to be easily interpreted?
A. A logistic regression
B. An exponential regression
C. A linear regression
D. A probit regression
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION 2 A data scientist wants to evaluate the performance of various nonlinear
models. Which of the following is best suited for this task?
A. AIC
B. Chi-squared test
C. MCC
D. ANOVA
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is the layer that is responsible for the depth in
deep learning?
A. Convolution
B. Dropout
C. Pooling
D. Hidden
Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which of the following modeling tools is appropriate for solving a
scheduling problem?
A. One-armed bandit
B. Constrained optimization
C. Decision tree
D. Gradient descent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scheduling problems require finding the best allocation of resources subject to
constraints (e.g., time
slots, resource availability), which is precisely what constrained optimization
algorithms are designed to handle.
QUESTION 5 Which of the following environmental changes is most likely to resolve a
memory constraint error when running a complex model using distributed
computing?
A. Converting an on-premises deployment to a containerized deployment
B. Migrating to a cloud deployment
C. Moving model processing to an edge deployment
D. Adding nodes to a cluster deployment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Increasing the number of nodes in your cluster directly expands the total
available memory across
the distributed system, alleviating memory-constraint errors without changing
your code or
deployment paradigm. Containerization or edge deployments dont inherently
provide more
memory, and migrating to the cloud alone doesnt guarantee additional nodes
unless you explicitly scale out.
QUESTION 1 A data scientist is building an inferential model with a single predictor
variable.
A scatter plot of the independent variable against the real-number dependent
variable shows a strong relationship
between them. The predictor variable is normally distributed with very few
outliers.
Which of the following algorithms is the best fit for this model, given the data
scientist wants the model to be easily interpreted?
A. A logistic regression
B. An exponential regression
C. A linear regression
D. A probit regression
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION 2 A data scientist wants to evaluate the performance of various nonlinear
models. Which of the following is best suited for this task?
A. AIC
B. Chi-squared test
C. MCC
D. ANOVA
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is the layer that is responsible for the depth in
deep learning?
A. Convolution
B. Dropout
C. Pooling
D. Hidden
Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which of the following modeling tools is appropriate for solving a
scheduling problem?
A. One-armed bandit
B. Constrained optimization
C. Decision tree
D. Gradient descent
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scheduling problems require finding the best allocation of resources subject to
constraints (e.g., time
slots, resource availability), which is precisely what constrained optimization
algorithms are designed to handle.
QUESTION 5 Which of the following environmental changes is most likely to resolve a
memory constraint error when running a complex model using distributed
computing?
A. Converting an on-premises deployment to a containerized deployment
B. Migrating to a cloud deployment
C. Moving model processing to an edge deployment
D. Adding nodes to a cluster deployment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Increasing the number of nodes in your cluster directly expands the total
available memory across
the distributed system, alleviating memory-constraint errors without changing
your code or
deployment paradigm. Containerization or edge deployments dont inherently
provide more
memory, and migrating to the cloud alone doesnt guarantee additional nodes
unless you explicitly scale out.
About the Exam
The CompTIA CloudNetX certification exam will certify the successful candidate
has the knowledge and skills required to:
• Analyze business requirements to design and configure secure network
architecture for on-premises and cloud environments.
• Analyze requirements to design for network security, availability, Zero Trust,
and identity and access management technologies.
• Apply and configure concepts and tools related to network monitoring and
performance, automation, and scripting.
• Troubleshoot network issues related to connectivity, performance, access, and
security.
• Perform network operation and maintenance.
EXAM DEVELOPMENT CompTIA exams result from subject matter expert workshops and industry-wide
survey results regarding the skills and knowledge required of an IT
professional.
EXAM OBJECTIVES (DOMAINS) The table below lists the domains measured by this examination and the
extent to which they are represented.
DOMAIN PERCENTAGE OF EXAMINATION 1.0 Network Architecture Design 31%
2.0 Network Security 28%
3.0 Network Operations, Monitoring, and Performance 16%
4.0 Network Troubleshooting 25%
Total 100%
The CompTIA CloudNetX (CNX-001) exam is an advanced networking certification
that validates skills in designing and managing complex, hybrid IT
infrastructures. It's designed for network architects, infrastructure
architects, enterprise architects, and cloud architects. The exam consists of a
maximum of 90 questions and is focused on real-world cloud networking
challenges.
Here's a more detailed breakdown: Exam Objectives: The CNX-001 exam objectives cover a range of topics,
including:
Network Architecture: This includes understanding wireless technologies like BLE, NFC, and IoT, as
well as designing and implementing various network architectures.
Cloud Security: This section focuses on cloud security solutions and best practices.
Automation: This area covers automation tools and techniques for managing cloud
infrastructure.
Network Performance and Optimization: This includes understanding network performance metrics and techniques for
optimizing cloud network performance.
Network Troubleshooting: This section focuses on troubleshooting common network issues in cloud
environments.
Exam Format and Structure: The exam is typically 90 minutes long and includes a mix of multiple-choice
and performance-based questions.
The passing score is usually a percentage, such as 720 on a scale of 100 to 900.
Target Audience:
Network architects and infrastructure architects. IT professionals looking to advance in cloud networking, security, and
automation.
Individuals with five years of experience in a network architect role, with
experience in hybrid cloud environments.
Key Areas to Study:
Network Architecture: Understand the different network architectures and how they apply to cloud
environments.
Cloud Security: Familiarize yourself with cloud security solutions, such as firewalls,
intrusion detection systems, and secure web gateways.
Automation: Learn about automation tools and techniques for managing cloud
infrastructure.
Performance and Optimization: Understand how to monitor and optimize network performance in a cloud
environment.
Troubleshooting: Practice troubleshooting common network issues in cloud environments.
Sample Question and Answers
QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT
New devices were deployed on a network and need to be hardened.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to define the appliance-hardening techniques that
provide the most secure solution.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation,
please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
QUESTION 2 SIMULATION
A network administrator needs to resolve connectivity issues in a hybrid cloud
setup. Workstations and VMs are not able to access Application
A. Workstations are able to access Server B.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on workstations, VMs, firewalls, and NSGs to troubleshoot and gather
information. Type help in the terminal to view a list of available commands.
Select the appropriate device(s) requiring remediation and identify the
associated issue(s).
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation,
please click the Reset All button.
Answer: See
explanation below.
Explanation:
Firewalls → VPN tunnel down
The IPsec tunnel between on-prem Firewall 1 and cloud Firewall 2 (ipip0/ipip2)
is down, so no traffic can traverse to the cloud.
Application NSG → Misconfigured rule
Theres a oeblock rule for 10.3.9.0 → 192.2.1.0, preventing legitimate on-prem
clients from reaching Application A.
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT
You are designing a campus network with a three-tier hierarchy and need to
ensure secure connectivity between locations and traveling employees.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the command output by clicking on the server, laptops, and workstations
on the network.
Use the drop-down menus to determine the appropriate technology and label for
each layer on the diagram. Options may only be used once.
Click on the magnifying glass to make additional configuration changes.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation,
please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
As part of a project to modernize a sports stadium and improve the customer
service experience for fans, the stadium owners want to implement a new wireless
system. Currently, all tickets are electronic and managed by the stadium mobile
application. The new solution is required to allow location tracking precision
within 5ft (1.5m) of fans to deliver the following services:
Emergency/security assistance
Mobile food order
Event special effects
Raffle winner location displayed on the giant stadium screen
Which of the following technologies enables location tracking?
A. SSID
B. BLE
C. NFC
D. IoT
Answer: B
Explanation:
BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy) is a wireless personal area network (WPAN) technology
designed for
applications that require lower energy consumption and reduced cost while
maintaining a
communication range similar to classic Bluetooth. BLE supports location tracking
with an accuracy
range typically between 1 to 2 meters (approximately 3 to 6 feet), making it
ideal for applications
that demand fine-grained location services, such as stadium services requiring
real-time user proximity data.
According to the CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001 Official Objectives, under the
Network Architecture domain, specifically in the subdomain:
"Wireless Technologies: Identify capabilities of BLE, NFC, RFID, and IoT devices
within a network environment," it is outlined that:
"BLE enables proximity-based services and real-time indoor location tracking
with high accuracy when used with beacon infrastructure."
"BLE beacons can be deployed throughout a physical space, transmitting signals
received by mobile applications to determine a users location within a few
feet."
"BLE is widely adopted for use cases including indoor navigation, asset
tracking, and personalized user engagement, making it a critical technology for
modern high-density venues such as stadiums." In comparison:
SSID merely identifies a wireless network and has no location tracking function.
NFC requires close contact (under 4 cm), and is not suitable for continuous or
broad-range tracking.
IoT is an overarching category that includes connected devices and sensors;
however, IoT is not a standalone location tracking technology. It may include
BLE as a component, but BLE specifically
provides the precise location tracking functionality.
These distinctions are explicitly addressed in the CompTIA CloudNetX CNX-001
Study Guide, under the section:
oeEmerging Network Technologies and Architectures , where BLE is described as a
key enabling technology for context-aware and location-based services in
enterprise and public environments.
QUESTION 5 A company is experiencing Wi-Fi performance issues. Three Wi-Fi networks are
available, each
running on the 2.4 GHz band and on the same channel. Connecting to each Wi-Fi
network yields slow
performance. Which of the following channels should the networks be configured
to?
A. Channel 1, Channel 2. and Channel 3
B. Channel 2. Channel 4, and Channel 9
C. Channel 1, Channel 6, and Channel 11
D. Channel 3, Channel 5, and Channel 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
These are the three non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band, eliminating
co-channel and adjacent-channel interference for optimal Wi-Fi performance.
Exam Code JN0-683
Prerequisite Certification JNCIS-DC or JNCIS-ENT
Exam Length 90 minutes
Exam Type 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions Junos OS: 23.4
Recommended Training Data Center Fabric with EVPN and VXLAN
The Data Center track enables you to demonstrate competence with advanced data
center technologies and related configuration and troubleshooting skills. JNCIP-DC,
the professional-level certification in this track, is designed for experienced
data center networking professionals with advanced knowledge of the Juniper
Networks Junos software and data center devices. The written exam verifies your
understanding of data center technologies, related platform configuration, and
troubleshooting skills.
This track includes four certifications: JNCIA-DC: Data Center, Associate. For details, see JNCIA-DC.
JNCIS-DC: Data Center, Specialist. For details, see JNCIS-DC.
JNCIP-DC: Data Center, Professional. For details, see the sections below.
JNCIE-DC: Data Center, Expert. For details, see JNCIE-DC.
Exam Preparation We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam.
However, these resources aren't required, and using them doesn't guarantee
you'll pass the exam.
Exam Objectives Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete
the JNCIP-DC certification exam.
Exam Objective
Data Center Deployment and Management Describe data center deployment concepts.
Zero-touch provisioning (ZTP)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Describe data center management concepts. Monitoring
Analytics (telemetry)
Layer 3 Fabrics
Describe IP fabric concepts. IP fabric architecture
IP fabric routing
IP fabric scaling
IP fabric Class of Service (RDMA/RoCE)
IP fabric best practices
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting an IP
fabric. VXLAN
Describe VXLAN concepts.
VXLAN control planes
Data plane
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting VXLAN. EVPN-VXLAN Signaling
Describe EVPN concepts. Route types
EVPN multicast
Multiprotocol BGP (MBGP)
EVPN architectures (CRB and ERB)
MAC learning
Symmetric routing
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting EVPNs. Data Center Interconnect
Describe Data Center Interconnect (DCI) concepts. Interconnect network types
Layer 2 and Layer 3 stretch
Stitching
EVPN-signaled VXLAN for DCI
Demonstrate knowledge of configuring, monitoring, or troubleshooting DCI. Data Center Multitenancy and Security
Describe single tenant and multitenant architectures.
Tenant traffic isolation (Layer 3 or Layer 2)
Multitenancy (for example, routing instances)
Describe data center security concepts. Filter-based forwarding
Group-based policy (GBP)
Exam Details Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam
resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking
the exam. The exam is only provided in English.
Recertification Juniper certifications are valid for three years. For more information, see
Recertification.
Sample Question and Answers
QUESTION 1 Exhibit.
A VXLAN tunnel has been created between leaf1 and Ieaf2 in your data center.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. Traffic sent from server1 to server2 will be dropped on Ieaf2.
B. Traffic sent from server1 to server2 will be tagged with VLAN ID 100 on Ieaf2
and forwarded to server2.
C. Traffic sent from server1 to server2 will be tagged with VLAN ID 200 on Ieaf2
and forwarded to server2.
D. Traffic sent from server1 to server2 will be dropped on leaf1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding VXLAN Tunneling:
VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) is a network virtualization technology that
addresses the scalability
issues associated with traditional VLANs. VXLAN encapsulates Ethernet frames in
UDP, allowing Layer
2 connectivity to extend across Layer 3 networks.
Each VXLAN network is identified by a unique VXLAN Network Identifier (VNI). In
this exhibit, we
have two VNIs, 5100 and 5200, assigned to the VXLAN tunnels between leaf1 and
leaf2.
Network Setup Details:
Leaf1: Connected to Server1 with VLAN ID 100 and associated with VNI 5100.
Leaf2: Connected to Server2 with VLAN ID 200 and associated with VNI 5200.
Spine: Acts as the interconnect between leaf switches.
Traffic Flow Analysis:
When traffic is sent from Server1 to Server2, it is initially tagged with VLAN
ID 100 on leaf1.
The traffic is encapsulated into a VXLAN packet with VNI 5100 on leaf1.
The packet is then sent across the network (via the spine) to leaf2.
On leaf2, the VXLAN header is removed, and the original Ethernet frame is
decapsulated.
Leaf2 will then associate this traffic with VLAN ID 200 before forwarding it to
Server2.
Correct Interpretation of the Exhibit:
The traffic originating from Server1, which is tagged with VLAN ID 100, will be
encapsulated into
VXLAN and transmitted to leaf2.
Upon arrival at leaf2, it will be decapsulated, and since it is associated with
VNI 5200 on leaf2, the
traffic will be retagged with VLAN ID 200.
Therefore, the traffic will reach Server2 tagged with VLAN ID 200, which matches
the network configuration shown in the exhibit.
Data Center Reference:
This configuration is typical in data centers using VXLAN for network
virtualization. It allows isolated
Layer 2 segments (VLANs) to be stretched across Layer 3 boundaries while
maintaining distinct VLAN IDs at each site.
This approach is efficient for scaling large data center networks while avoiding
VLAN ID exhaustion
and enabling easier segmentation.
In summary, the correct behavior, as per the exhibit and the detailed
explanation, is that traffic sent
from Server1 will be tagged with VLAN ID 200 when it reaches Server2 via leaf2.
This ensures proper
traffic segmentation and handling across the VXLAN-enabled data center network.
QUESTION 2 Exhibit.
You have implemented an EVPN-VXLAN data center. Device served must be able to
communicate with device server2.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. An IRB interface must be configured on spinel and spine2.
B. Traffic from server1 to server2 will transit a VXLAN tunnel to spinel or
spine2. then a VXLAN tunnel from spinel or spine2 to Ieaf2.
C. An IRB Interface must be configured on leaf1 and Ieaf2.
D. Traffic from server! to server2 will transit the VXLAN tunnel between leaf1
and Ieaf2.
Answer: CD
Explanation:
Understanding the Exhibit Setup:
The network diagram shows an EVPN-VXLAN setup, a common design for modern data
centers
enabling Layer 2 and Layer 3 services over an IP fabric.
Leaf1 and Leaf2 are the leaf switches connected to Server1 and Server2,
respectively, with each
server in a different subnet (172.16.1.0 and 172.16.2.0).
Spine1 and Spine2 are part of the IP fabric, interconnecting the leaf switches.
EVPN-VXLAN Basics:
EVPN (Ethernet VPN) provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPN services using MP-BGP.
VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) encapsulates Layer 2 frames into Layer 3 packets
for transmission across an IP network.
VTEP (VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint) interfaces on leaf devices handle VXLAN
encapsulation and decapsulation.
Integrated Routing and Bridging (IRB):
IRB interfaces are required on leaf1 and leaf2 (where the endpoints are directly
connected) to route
between different subnets (in this case, between 172.16.1.0 and 172.16.2.0).
The IRB interfaces provide the necessary L3 gateway functions for inter-subnet
communication.
Traffic Flow Analysis:
Traffic from Server1 (172.16.1.1) destined for Server2 (172.16.2.1) must
traverse from leaf1 to leaf2.
The traffic will be VXLAN encapsulated on leaf1, sent over the IP fabric, and
decapsulated on leaf2.
Since the communication is between different subnets, the IRB interfaces on
leaf1 and leaf2 are
crucial for routing the traffic correctly.
Correct Statements:
C . An IRB Interface must be configured on leaf1 and leaf2: This is necessary to
perform the intersubnet routing for traffic between Server1 and Server2.
D . Traffic from server1 to server2 will transit the VXLAN tunnel between leaf1
and leaf2: This describes the correct VXLAN operation where the traffic is
encapsulated by leaf1 and decapsulated by leaf2. Data Center Reference: In
EVPN-VXLAN architectures, the leaf switches often handle both Layer 2 switching
and Layer 3
routing via IRB interfaces. This allows for efficient routing within the data
center fabric without the
need to involve the spine switches for every routing decision.
The described traffic flow aligns with standard EVPN-VXLAN designs, where direct
VXLAN tunnels
between leaf switches enable seamless and scalable communication across a data
center network.
QUESTION 3 Which statement is correct about a collapsed fabric EVPN-VXLAN architecture?
A. Fully meshed back-to-back links are needed between the spine devices.
B. It supports multiple vendors in the fabric as long as all the spine devices
are Juniper devices deployed with L2 VTEPs
C. Using Virtual Chassis at the leaf layer increases resiliency.
D. Border gateway functions occur on border leaf devices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Collapsed Fabric Architecture:
A collapsed fabric refers to a simplified architecture where the spine and leaf
roles are combined, often reducing the number of devices and links required.
In this architecture, the spine typically handles core switching, while leaf
switches handle both access and distribution roles.
Understanding Border Gateway Functionality:
Border gateway functions include connecting the data center to external networks
or other data centers.
In a collapsed fabric, these functions are usually handled at the leaf level,
particularly on border leaf
devices that manage the ingress and egress of traffic to and from the data
center fabric.
Correct Statement:
D . Border gateway functions occur on border leaf devices: This is accurate in
collapsed fabric
architectures, where the border leaf devices take on the role of managing
external connections and
handling routes to other data centers or the internet.
Data Center Reference:
The collapsed fabric model is advantageous in smaller deployments or scenarios
where simplicity
and cost-effectiveness are prioritized. It reduces complexity by consolidating
functions into fewer
devices, and the border leaf handles the critical task of interfacing with
external networks.
In conclusion, border gateway functions are effectively managed at the leaf
layer in collapsed fabric
architectures, ensuring that the data center can communicate with external
networks seamlessly.
QUESTION 4 You are deploying an EVPN-VXLAN overlay. You must ensure that Layer 3
routing happens on the spine devices. In this scenario, which deployment
architecture should you use?
A. ERB
B. CRB
C. bridged overlay
D. distributed symmetric routing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding EVPN-VXLAN Architectures:
EVPN-VXLAN overlays allow for scalable Layer 2 and Layer 3 services in modern
data centers.
CRB (Centralized Routing and Bridging): In this architecture, the Layer 3
routing is centralized on
spine devices, while the leaf devices focus on Layer 2 switching and VXLAN
tunneling. This setup is
optimal when the goal is to centralize routing for ease of management and to
avoid complex routing at the leaf level.
ERB (Edge Routing and Bridging): This architecture places routing functions on
the leaf devices,
making it a distributed model where each leaf handles routing for its connected
hosts.
Architecture Choice for Spine Routing:
Given the requirement to ensure Layer 3 routing happens on the spine devices,
the CRB (Centralized
Routing and Bridging) architecture is the correct choice. This configuration
offloads routing tasks to
the spine, centralizing control and potentially simplifying the overall design.
Explanation:
With CRB, the spine devices perform all routing between VXLAN segments. Leaf
switches handle
local switching and VXLAN encapsulation, but routing decisions are centralized
at the spine level.
This model is particularly advantageous in scenarios where centralized
management and routing
control are desired, reducing the complexity and configuration burden on the
leaf switches.
Data Center Reference:
The CRB architecture is commonly used in data centers where centralized control
and simplified
management are key design considerations. It allows the spines to act as the
primary routing
engines, ensuring that routing is handled in a consistent and scalable manner
across the fabric.
QUESTION 5 You want to ensure that VXLAN traffic from the xe-0/0 interlace is being
encapsulated by logical
vlep.32770 and sent to a remote leaf device in this scenario, which command
would you use to verify that traffic is flowing?
A. monitor traffic interface xe-0/0
B. show interface terse vtep.32770
C. show interfaces terse vtep.32770 statistics
D. show interfaces vtep.32770 detail
Answer: C
Explanation:
VXLAN Traffic Verification:
To ensure VXLAN traffic from the xe-0/0 interface is correctly encapsulated by
the logical
vtep.32770 and sent to a remote leaf device, it is essential to monitor the
relevant interface statistics.
The command show interfaces terse vtep.32770 statistics provides a concise
overview of the traffic
statistics for the specific VTEP interface, which can help verify whether
traffic is being correctly
encapsulated and transmitted.
Explanation:
This command is particularly useful for quickly checking the traffic counters
and identifying any
potential issues with VXLAN encapsulation or transmission.
t allows you to confirm that traffic is flowing as expected, by checking
the transmitted and received packet counters.
Data Center Reference:
Monitoring interface statistics is a crucial step in troubleshooting and
validating network traffic,
particularly in complex overlay environments like EVPN-VXLAN.
